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Author: Sami.Jukkasjarvi
Date: 19-02-2005, 20:58
Edited by: Sami.Jukkasjarvi
at: 19-02-2005, 21:07 | Does anyone understand why the odds for double result so much favor (draw in the first half, Team A wins in the second half) over vice versa, (Team A wins in the first half, draw in the second half).
For example, William Hill's odds for double result in today's Villarreal-Atletico Madrid game are
(draw, Villarreal) 10/3
(Villarreal, draw) 42/3
so that they think that the latter double result in their view is more than 4 times as likely as the former.
Strangely, the difference in odds for
(draw, Atletico) 8/1 and
(Atletico, draw) 14/1
is not that big.
Can anyone comment on this? What are data on this? I have no explanations for such a huge gap of 42/3 vs. 10/3. |
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Author: ralfinho
Date: 22-02-2005, 19:48
| Well, seems quite logical for me.
As we talked about here, Villareal has a strong defence especially at home (last weekend seems to be an exception). So, obviously bookmakers think that it's more likely that Villareal scores in second half after a half time draw than that Villareal gives away a half time lead. |
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Author: Sami.Jukkasjarvi
Date: 22-02-2005, 20:14
| My understanding of (Villarreal, draw) double result is that Villareal wins the first half and there is a draw in the second half (so that obviously Villarreal wins the entire game) whereas you are suggesting that draw refers to draw in the whole game.
Maybe I am wrong. |
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Author: ralfinho
Date: 23-02-2005, 00:39
| Yes, Sami, I thought that "draw" refers to a draw in the whole game.
But maybe it's me who is wrong. I'm not so familiar with betting. |
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