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Author: spi
Date: 31-01-2005, 16:47

Question:
I know (or think to know) that when a player, that has been assigned to play for his national team in an official game, refuses to play (or if his club refuses to let him go), he is not allowed to play for his club on the same day (and even some days before and after, if I'm correct), unless his national association agrees.

Is this the same for friendly's of the national team? And if so, does this include friendly's on dates that haven't been reserved by Fifa or Uefa for games of the national teams?

Author: iwan
Date: 01-02-2005, 08:44

Yes, I don't know the exactly ruwls, but when a player play a copple
of years in the national competition (NC)of a country it must be possible to play in their natiional team (NT)of it, too when he hasn't a grand-grand-grant-grant-father with that nationality!!

Mariano Bombarda is an Argintin, bbut he has played 10 of the last
12 seasons in Holland, and that's why I find he can play in
the Dutch team. Glen Salmon (has a Zimbabwan and Southafrican nationality) had playd 6 ore 7 years in Holland.

But Saoudi-Arabia and Kuwait wanne let play Beckaham and Zidane in their
national teams and I find, that can't be possibble!!

I find some body must has played minimum 5 years in the NC of a country before he can play in the NT of it!!

I find too somebody can change of a national team, but there must be
than 5 years between it!!

Re: Q: Refusal to play for national team
Author: Ricardo Date: 01-02-2005, 09:23	If I remember correctly a National association has the right to call a player to play for the national team also for a couple (4?) friendly games each year. I think this rule was there before the dates where this tight set(before the CL took so many dates).

Author: iwan
Date: 01-02-2005, 09:34

Yes, in frendly matches many things are possible.
Many years agow there was a world-team with the best players
of the world formed off many countries who played against national
and club teams.

Willem van Hanegem played in his leaving match with Feyenoord against the Dutch national team. Holzenbain (ore was it Rummenige) in his leaving match with Bayern Munchen against the German team, the 1st halve he played for Bayern and the 2nd halve ffor the National team.

Frendly matches with gastplayers,
there are many possiblities.

But in official matches, special country-matches there must be limits.
But in clubteam-matches, so many people play in other countries then
they've born, there haven't to be limits!!!

Author: Gauss
Date: 01-02-2005, 14:24

@Iwan:
You don't have a clue what this thread is about, do you?

on topic:
The FIFA regulations say:
" Art. 40
A player who has been summoned by his national association for one of its representative teams shall, under no circumstances, be entitled to play for the club with which he is registered during the period for which he has been released or should have been released, pursuant to Art. 36 above. This restriction on playing for the club shall, moreover, be prolonged by five days in the event that the player, for whatsoever reason, did not wish to or was unable to comply with the summons."

The number and kind of matches are described in Art. 36, 2. and 5.
In short: at least 5 matches per year, more if WC or EC matches are played
2 days for friendlies, 4 days for competition matches

The rules do not apply for friendly matches scheduled on dates outside the international match calendar (Art. 36, 4.)

The rest of it can be found here: http://www.fifa.com/en/regulations/regulationlegal/0,1577,2,00.html

Re: Q: Refusal to play for national team
Author: spi Date: 02-02-2005, 09:30	@ Gauss: thank you very much. @ Iwan: indeed, this wasn't what I was referring to, but thank you all the same ;-)

Re: Q: Refusal to play for national team
Author: pollymac Date: 02-02-2005, 11:57 Edited by: pollymac at: 02-02-2005, 11:58	re Article 40. I can't imagine FIFA or UEFA being able to impose the last part of that rule, that a player cannot play for 5 days after if they, for whatever reason, did not wish to or fail to comply with the summons. Wouldn't that breach the basic rights that every person has - to work? That would be a good one to see in the European Courts of Human Rights!